Integrated Science 780 Quiz Questions & Answers

Integrated Science, Chapter 1-26, 780 Quiz Questions & Answers, Instructors Solution Manual for SCI
97 page searchable .pdf ebook with highlighted correct answers.

Example:
The first requirement in the measurement process is to
A) count how many standard units describe the property being considered.
B) choose an instrument to measure the property.
C) choose a referent unit with which to measure the property.
D) select a procedure which specifies how the measurement is to be made.

To communicate and duplicate measurements, scientists must use
A) metric units.
B) standard units.
C) English units.
D) fundamental units.


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Which property listed below is not a fundamental property?
A) length
B) mass
C) weight
D) time

A fundamental property cannot be measured
A) in terms other than metric units.
B) in terms other than English units.
C) in simpler terms or combinations of terms.
D) with both accuracy and precision.

Which of the following is not a fundamental property?
A) density
B) electric charge
C) time
D) mass

Which statement below is a true description of the relationship between fundamental and standard units?
A) Fundamental units are equivalent to standard units.
B) Only some standard units are also fundamental units.
C) Only some fundamental units are also standard units.
D) “Fundamental” describes metric units while “standard” only describes units in the English system.

Because the standard unit of mass in the metric system was defined in terms of a certain volume of water, a
relationship was created between
A) mass and volume alone.
B) mass and length alone.
C) volume and length alone.
D) length, mass, and volume.


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Measurements in science are communicated by using
A) a numerical value.
B) a unit.
C) either a numerical value or a unit.
D) both a numerical value and a unit.

 

A news reporter stating that the Sun is expected to “burn off” a fog means that the fog will go away because
A)sunlight decomposes water vapor into hydrogen and oxygen.
B)sunlight increases the relative humidity through evaporation.
C)sunlight increases temperature, which increases the air capacity to hold water vapor.
D)fog is made up of very, very tiny droplets of water, which can burn in strong sunlight.
Hot air rising from the equatorial regions spreads north and south, then cools and descends to form
A)a belt of moist, low-pressure air.
B)a belt of dry, high-pressure air.
C)the jet stream.
D)a Chinook.

A measure of the amount of water vapor is called
A)humidity.
B)relative humidity.
C)absolute humidity.
D)water vapor index.

A measure of the amount of water vapor in the air compared to what could be in the air at that temperature is called
A)humidity.
B)relative humidity.
C)absolute humidity.
D)water vapor index.

How does the average amount of water that returns to the oceans by precipitation compare to the water that leaves by evaporation?
A)Evaporation is greater than precipitation.
B)Precipitation and evaporation are equal.
C)Precipitation is greater than evaporation.
D)There is no pattern that can be generalized.

Which of the following is not considered to be a form of precipitation?
A)rain
B)dew
C)snow
D)hail
When water vapor in the atmosphere condenses to liquid water,
A)dew falls to the ground.
B)it rains or snows.
C)a cloud forms.
D)all of these are correct.

Which cloud type is usually associated with the arrival of a strong cold front?
A)high, thin cirrus
B)towering cumulus
C)low stratus
D)any of these

A warm front forms when
A)a cold air mass displaces warmer air.
B)masses of cold air and warm air move past one another in opposite directions.
C)sunlight warms a stationary cold air mass.
D)a warm air mass advances, pushing away a mass of cooler air.

A cyclone is centered about a
A)region of low pressure.
B)region of high pressure.
C)cold front.
D)occluded front.
Long periods of drizzle, rain or snow are usually associated with which cloud type?
A)stratus
B)cumulus
C)cirrus
D)none of these

A condition that lifts air to form cumulus clouds is
A)differential heating.
B)mountain barriers.
C)a cold front.
D)any of these.

Rain never falls from which cloud type?
A)stratus
B)cumulus
C)cirrus
D)none of these

Brief periods of showers are usually associated with which cloud type?
A)stratus
B)cumulus
C)cirrus
D)none of these

Most of the great deserts in the world are located
A)near the equator.
B)30o north or south latitude.
C)60o north or south latitude.
D)deserts can be found at any latitude.

Approximately what percentage of Earth’s water is freshwater?
A)3
B)20
C)75
D)97

Approximately what percentage of Earth’s water is available freshwater?
A)1
B)3
C)75
D)98

The majority of the stream flow in a permanent stream comes from
A)recent rainfall.
B)recent snow melt.
C)groundwater.
D)none of the above

On average, what percentage of rainfall becomes runoff?
A)1
B)30
C)50
D)70

Rainfall falling on Phoenix, Arizona will eventually empty into which ocean?
A)Atlantic
B)Gulf of Mexico
C)Indian
D)Pacific

Which of the following is not categorized as surface water?
A)stream
B)aquifer
C)reservoir
D)lake

Groundwater is found in greatest quantities in soils with _____ porosity and _____ permeability.
A)high/high
B)high/low
C)low/high
D)low/low

A groundwater well should be dug to a depth
A)above the water table.
B)at the top of the water table.
C)above the zone of saturation.
D)below the water table.

Groundwater is most often treated to remove
A)bacteria.
B)toxic pollutants.
C)dissolved minerals.
D)sediments.

Why is groundwater used less frequently than surface water?
A)Groundwater use requires substantial inputs of energy to pump it to the surface.
B)Groundwater is naturally filtered in the soil.
C)Groundwater requires less pre-treatment than surface waters.
D)none of the above

Which stage of wastewater treatment removes suspended particles by sedimentation?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)post-secondary

Secondary treatment removes organic wastes from wastewater through the biological action of
A)parasites.
B)fish.
C)algae.
D)bacteria.

The geologically-active “ring of fire” circles which ocean?
A)Atlantic
B)Indian
C)Pacific
D)Gulf of Mexico

Land comprises _____ percent of Earth’s total surface area.
A)10
B)30
C)50
D)70

Evaporation and ice formation lead to a (an) ______ in seawater salinity.
A)increase
B)decrease
C)no change

The most common type of pollution in estuaries in the United States is
A)bacterial pathogens.
B)oil spills.
C)toxic metals.
D)excessive nutrients.

Plant life in sunlit ocean waters tends to decrease water concentrations of
A)carbon dioxide.
B)oxygen.
C)nitrogen.

Which of the following statements about waves is false?
A)No water particle movement occurs below a depth = 1/2λ.
B)Waves transport water molecules across the open ocean.
C)Waves become breakers near the shore when ocean depth is 1-1/3 times wave height.
D)Breakers form due to friction between the circular motion of water particles and the ocean bottom.

Which of the following is not a cause of ocean currents?
A)winds that blow persistently in the same direction
B)density differences in seawater
C)underwater seismic activity

Which of the following generally increases the density of water?
A)lower salinity
B)lower temperature
C)lower sediment levels

Which of the following components of the ocean bottom is located the greatest distance from the shore?
A)continental slope
B)continental shelf
C)ocean basin

Seafloor is created at _____ and destroyed at _____.
A)mid-ocean ridges, hydrothermal vents
B)hydrothermal vents, subduction zones
C)subduction zones, mid-ocean ridges
D)mid-ocean ridges, subduction zones

The primary human-induced cause for the decline in submerged aquatic vegetation in the Chesapeake Bay is the increase of
A)blue crabs.
B)toxic metals.
C)nutrients.
D)algae.

The Mediterranean is a shallow sea of the
A)Atlantic Ocean.
B)Pacific Ocean.
C)Indian Ocean.
D)Arctic Ocean.

A tsunami is a large wave created by
A)sea-floor spreading.
B)underwater earthquake.
C)subduction of sea floor.
D)all of the above

Of the total water supply, the amount that is available for human
consumption and agriculture is
A)less than 1%
B)about 3%
C)about 50%
D)over 97%

Compared to the amount of surface water the amount of water
stored in groundwater is
A)1/10 as great.
B)roughly equal.
C)about 5 times as great.
D)roughly 30 times as great.

The average daily water use in the United States amounts to about
how many liters per day?
A)150
B)570
C)1500
D)5700

A watershed is
A)a layer of permeable material capable of storing
groundwater.
B)the land area drained by a stream.
C)the amount of precipitation released by a rainstorm.

A layer of heavy clay after a rain would be
A)highly porous and permeable.
B)quite porous, but not very permeable.
C)not very porous, but quite permeable.
D)neither porous nor permeable.

The Gulf of Mexico is a shallow sea of the
A)Atlantic Ocean
B)Indian Ocean
C)Pacific Ocean
D)South American Ocean.

The two most common ions in seawater are sodium and
A)calcium.
B)carbonate.
C)magnesium.
D)chlorine.

The average salinity of the earth’s oceans is about
A)0.35%
B)3.5%
C)35%
D)None of these.

The characteristics of ocean waves are influenced by
A)wind speed.
B)length of time the wind blows.
C)the fetch.
D)all of these.

A current that moves parallel to the shore in the surf zone is called a
A)rip current
B)longshore current.
C)undertow.
D)turbidity current.

How does the average amount of water that returns to the oceans by
precipitation compare to the water that leaves by evaporation?
A)Evaporation is greater than precipitation.
B)Precipitation and evaporation are equal.
C)Precipitation is greater than evaporation.
D)There is no pattern that can be generalized.

Which of the following is not considered to be a form of precipitation?
A)rain
B)dew
C)snow
D)hail
When water vapor in the atmosphere condenses to liquid water,
A)dew falls to the ground.
B)it rains or snows
C)a cloud forms.
D)all of these are correct.

Which cloud type is usually associated with the arrival of a cold front?
A)high, thin cirrus
B)towering cumulus
C)low stratus
D)any of these
A warm front forms when
A)a cold air mass displaces warmer air.
B)masses of cold air and warm air move past one another in opposite directions.
C)the suns warms a stationary cold air mass.
D)a warm air mass advances over a mass of cooler air.

A cyclone is centered about a
A)region of low pressure.
B)region of high pressure.
C)cold front.
D)occluded front.

Longer periods of drizzle, rain or snow are usually associated with
which cloud type?
A)stratus
B)cumulus
C)cirrus
D)None of these are correct.

A condition that lifts a parcel of air to form cumulus clouds is
A)differential heating.
B)mountain barriers.
C)a cold front.
D)any of these.
Brief periods of showers are usually associated with which cloud type?
A)stratus
B)cumulus
C)cirrus
D)None of these.


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Most of the great deserts in the world are located
A)near the equator.
B)30° north or south latitude.
C)60° north or south latitude.
D)Deserts can be found at any latitude.

What is it about carbon that allows it to form so many different compounds? It
A)has a valence of four.
B)has two electrons in its innermost shell (1s2).
C)has six electrons, which can form bonds with six other atoms forming a hexagon.
D)is easily ionized.

Which of the following hydrocarbons has a molecular formula of C2H2?
A)ethane
B)ethylene
C)ethene
D)none of the above

Which of the following is not a characteristic of alkanes?
A)Alkanes are unsaturated hydrocarbons.
B)Alkanes are called the paraffin series.
C)All carbon-carbon linkages are single bonds.
D)Alkanes can occur as straight structures, branched structures, or ring structures.
Which of the following is the correct formula for the group known as carboxylic acid?
A)=O=C
B)-CH3
C)-COOH
D)-NH2

Which is not a nitrogenous base found in DNA?
A)cytosine
B)hexane
C)adenine
D)uracil

Straight chain hydrocarbons with at least one triple bond between two carbon atoms are called
A)alkanes.
B)alkenes.
C)alkynes.
D)aromatic hydrocarbons.

Which of the following is a component of true fats?
A)phosphate
B)glycerol
C)amino group
D)adenine

Organic molecules with the same empirical formula but a different structural formula are called a (an)
A)isotope.
B)isometric.
C)isomer.
D)polymer.

The major component of natural gas is
A)methane.
B)propane.
C)butane.
D)octane.

A hydrocarbon found in both gasoline and petroleum ether is
A)hexane.
B)octane.
C)decane.
D)nonane.

The first use of gasoline was as
A)lamp oil.
B)fuel for Ford’s prototype cars.
C)a lubricant.
D)spot remover.

RNA is formed
A)by replicating a portion of the coding strand of DNA.
B)by linking amino acids together.
C)when a series of monosaccharides are joined.
D)only when a messenger RNA is required.
A light lubricating oil that has been decolorized and purified is
A)diesel fuel or distillate fuel oil.
B)kerosene or lamp oil.
C)gasoline.
D)mineral oil.

A long chain of many repeating units is called a (an)
A)tetramer.
B)polymer.
C)ester.
D)octamer.

The alcohol that can cause blindness and death is
A)methanol.
B)2-propanol.
C)ethanol.
D)absolute alcohol.

True fats belong to which major class or organic molecules?
A)carbohydrates
B)alcohol
C)lipids
D)nucleic acids

An example of a fatty acid is
A)lactic acid.
B)formic acid.
C)palmitic acid.
D)acetic acid.

Which of the following is not a macromolecule?
A)protein
B)carbohydrate
C)nucleic acid
D)petroleum ether

Which of the following statements about proteins is true?
A)Proteins are formed from 23 different amino acids.
B)Antibodies are proteins that protect the body from infection.
C)Proteins contain beta-amino acids.
D)Proteins are held together by peptide bonds between the R groups of different amino acids.

During the formation of a peptide bond from condensation of a carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of a second amino acid, the products are a dipeptide and a(n)
A)water.
B)carbon dioxide.
C)carboxyl group.
D)amino group.
A major function of carbohydrates is
A)to catalyze reactions.
B)to provide structural support in the cell walls of plants.
C)to store energy in adipose tissue.
D)to store oxygen in a muscle cell.
The polysaccharide found in humans and other animals that provides a reserve of energy is called
A)cellulose.
B)starch.
C)glycogen.
D)lactose.

What does it mean when we say fat is unsaturated? It means that the fat contains
A)straight chain fatty acids with no branches.
B)several ring structures in addition to the fatty acids.
C)non-fatty acid structures as well as fatty acids.
D)at least one double bond between two carbon atoms of its fatty acid.

Which of the following is not a correct statement about the hydrogenation of soybean oil?
A)Double bonds are converted to single bonds.
B)An oil usually becomes a solid when left at room temperature after hydrogenation.
C)The soybean oil is converted into soap.
D)The unsaturated soybean oil is converted into a saturated fat.

Which of the following is not a correct statement about polyethylene?
A)Polyethylene is produced by polymerization of ethylene.
B)Polyethylene is used to make cellophane.
C)Polyethylene was used as an electrical insulating material during WWII.
D)A chlorine derivative of polyethylene is called polyvinyl chloride.

Hydrocarbons with single carbon-to-carbon bonds are known as
A)alkanes.
B)alkenes.
C)alkynes.
D)aromatic hydrocarbons.

The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for
A)a reactive atom.
B)a separate functional group.
C)any hydrocarbon group.
D)a rigid part of the molecule.

To which category does the molecule below belong?
A)alkane
B)alkene
C)alkyne
D)aromatic hydrocarbon

Sucrose is an example of a
A)monosaccharide.
B)disaccharide.
C)polysaccharide.
D)fruit sugar.

An alkane with 3 carbon atoms would have how many hydrogen atoms in the molecule?
A)4
B)6
C)8
D)10
Proteins have as their basic repeating unit (monomer)
A)monosaccharide.
B)amino acid.
C)fatty acid.
D)nucleotide.

Compounds with the general structural formula RCOOH are known as
A)esters.
B)carboxylic acids.
C)aldehydes.
D)fats.

Starch is a polymer formed by the linking of many
A)saccharides.
B)amino acids.
C)triglycerides.
D)peptides.

Nucleotides have which three components?
A)sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous base
B)sugar, phosphate, and amino acid
C)glycerol, fatty acid, and amino acid
D)monosaccharide, amino acid, and phosphate

Organic compounds responsible for flavors in fruits and the scent of flowers are
A)esters.
B)ethers.
C)alcohols.
D)ketones.

The growth of an organism is a
A)responsive process.
B)generative process.
C)metabolic process.
D)control process.

A paramecium ingesting a bacterial cell is an example of which step in metabolism?
A)nutrient uptake
B)waste elimination
C)nutrient processing
D)adaptive response

The evolution of a population of organisms is a
A)responsive process.
B)generative process.
C)metabolic process.
D)control process.

What is the basic structural unit of which all living things are composed?
A)organs
B)cells
C)organisms
D)tissues
Prokaryotic cells lack
A)cell membranes.
B)cell walls.
C)nucleus.
D)DNA.

Proteins with attached carbohydrates or fats on the cell membrane function in
A)the identification of cells.
B)the metabolism of sugars.
C)structural support for the cell.
D)transporting materials into and out of the cell.

sChitin is the main constituent of the cell
A)Chitin is the main constituent of the cell membrane of plants.
B)wall of fungi.
C)wall of plants.

In diffusion, molecules move from areas of _____ concentration to areas of _____ concentration.
A)higher, higher
B)higher, lower
C)lower, higher
D)lower, lower

The movement of oxygen into cells from the bloodstream is accomplished through
A)osmosis.
B)active transport.
C)diffusion.
D)phagocytosis.

ells of fresh water organisms are _____ compared to the surrounding water.
A)isotonic
B)hypertonic
C)hypotonic
D)ginandtonic

Increasing the rate of diffusion through the use of specific carrier proteins is termed
A)active transport.
B)phagocytosis.
C)osmosis.
D)facilitated diffusion.

Individual cells are limited in their maximum size because their _____ increases faster than their _____ as the cell grows larger.
A)diffusion, volume
B)surface area, volume
C)diffusion, surface area
D)volume, surface area

he organelle involved in the transport of materials within the cell is the
A)Golgi apparatus.
B)endoplasmic reticulum.
C)nucleus.
D)cell membrane.
Contractile vacuoles are necessary for maintaining water balance in single-celled _____ organisms.
A)eukaryotic
B)prokaryotic
C)salt water
D)fresh water

The organelle that serves as the “power plant” for the cell is the
A)endoplasmic reticulum.
B)lysosome.
C)mitochondrion.
D)golgi apparatus.

Which of the following are double-membrane organelles?
A)mitochondria
B)chloroplast
C)ribosome
D)both a and b

Antibiotics like streptomycin affect the function of_____ in bacteria.
A)protein synthesis
B)photosynthesis
C)energy production
D)cellular transport

Which of the following is the correct order for the stages of mitosis?
A)telophase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase
B)anaphase, telophase, prophase, metaphase
C)prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
D)prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase

During which stage is DNA replicated?
A)metaphase
B)anaphase
C)prophase
D)interphase

During which stage are the chromatids pulled to opposite poles?
A)metaphase
B)anaphase
C)prophase
D)interphase

During which stage do the chromosomes align themselves at the cell’s equatorial plane?
A)metaphase
B)anaphase
C)prophase
D)interphase

During which stage does the nuclear membrane disappear?
A)metaphase
B)anaphase
C)prophase
D)telophase
During which stage does the nuclear membrane reappear?
A)metaphase
B)anaphase
C)prophase
D)telophase

Osmosis is the diffusion of ____ across a selectively permeable membrane.
A)proteins
B)sugars
C)water
D)vacuoles

Solution A contains 20% sugar and 80% water. Solution B contains 30% sugar and 70% water. The two solutions are separated by a semi-permeable membrane. Which of the following is true?
A)solution A is hypotonic to solution B
B)solution A is hypertonic to solution B
C)water will flow from solution B to solution A
D)the solutions are isotonic

Algae, protozoa, fungi, plants and animals are all comprised of
A)eukaryotic cells.
B)prokaryotic cells.
C)bacterial cells.
D)only cytoplasm.

A series of enzyme-controlled reactions is often called
A)a biochemical pathway.
B)a metabolic pathway.
C)both A and B.
D)none of these.

Enzymes operate by lowering the amount of energy needed to get a reaction going called
A)bound energy.
B)activation energy.
C)conformation energy.
D)nuclear energy.

To transfer the right amount of chemical-bond energy from energy-releasing to energy-requiring reactions, cells use the molecule
A)AMP.
B)DNA.
C)RNA.
D)ATP.

In algae and the leaves of green plants, photosynthesis occurs in cells that contain
A)chloroplasts.
B)mitochondria.
C)nuclei.
D)centrioles.

Which is NOT a stage in photosynthesis?
A)light capturing
B)light-dependent reactions
C)light independent reactions
D)Krebs cycle
A hypotonic solution has ____ solutes (dissolved material) and more solvent (water).
A)less
B)more
C)equal amount
D)none of these is true

Which is not a stage in aerobic cellular respiration?
A)glycolysis
B)ETS
C)Krebs cycle
D)light-dependent reaction

Growth is an example of a ____ process.
A)metabolic
B)generative
C)responsive
D)control

Nutrient processing is a ____ process.
A)metabolic
B)generative
C)responsive
D)control

A nucleus is found in
A)bacteria.
B)eukaryotic cells.
C)blue-green algae.
D)All of these answers are true.

Eukaryotic cells are found in
A)fungi.
B)plants.
C)animals.
D)All of these answers are true.

Chromosomes are
A)composed of DNA and lipid.
B)found only in the cytoplasm.
C)composed of DNA and carbohydrate.
D)composed of DNA and protein.

Daughter cells are formed during
A)metaphase.
B)anaphase.
C)prophase.
D)telophase.

The most important result of mitosis is the
A)production of new varieties of cells to meet changes in the environment.
B)exact duplication of the parent cell’s genetic information.
C)equal division of the parent cell’s genetic information between the two daughter cells.
D)equal distribution of the parent’s cytoplasm between the two daughter cells.

The metaphase stage of mitosis is characterized by the
A)chromosomes arranging themselves along a line.
B)chromosomes arranging themselves on a plane.
C)division of the centromeres.
D)duplication of genetic information.

During anaphase of mitosis, the
A)nuclear membranes are beginning to reappear around each of the patches that will soon be daughter nuclei.
B)number of distinct chromosomes present is twice the number that were present before mitosis started.
C)centromeres have not divided.
D)chromosomes duplicate by making exact copies of themselves.

The order in which the stages of mitosis proceed is
A)anaphase, interphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase.
B)interphase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase.
C)prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, interphase.
D)interphase, telophase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase.

The oldest fossil organism found lived approximately_____ years ago.
A)1 million
B)1 billion
C)2 billion
D)3.5 billion

Some scientists hypothesize that the first genetic material was not DNA, but rather
A)ribosomes.
B)mitochondria.
C)RNA.
D)proteins.

Although there is considerable disagreement among biologists about the origin of life on earth, there would be general agreement that the first
A)living things were similar to present day prokaryotic organisms.
B)organism was a heterotroph.
C)organism was an autotroph.
D)organism arrived on a meteorite.

Scientists hypothesize that our current oxidizing atmosphere arose due to _____ by primitive organisms.
A)respiration
B)photosynthesis
C)anaerobic respiration
D)an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide produced

Scientists agree that all primitive life on earth was
A)autotrophic.
B)heterotrophic.
C)aerobic.
D)anaerobic.

Organisms from which domain are typically found in extreme environments?
A)Archaea
B)Eubacteria
C)Eucarya
D)Protozoa

The endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells theorizes that
A)photosynthesis evolved through the union of two prokaryotic cells.
B)prokaryotic cells evolved through a combining of two or more eukaryotic cells.
C)eukaryotic cells predated prokaryotic cells by several billion years.
D)eukaryotic cells evolved through a combining of two or more prokaryotic cells.

Which of the following organelles in eukaryotic cells were thought to once have been a free-living prokaryote?
A)chloroplast
B)RNA
C)ribosome
D)all of the above

Evolution occurs to
A)individual cells.
B)individual organisms.
C)populations.
D)communities.

Most genetic mutations are
A)beneficial.
B)harmful.
C)neutral.
D)likely to become common in the population.

The mixing of genes that occurs during sexual reproduction is termed
A)mutation.
B)evolution.
C)natural selection.
D)genetic recombination.

Which of the following is not an acquired characteristic?
A)an intimate knowledge of algebra
B)a tan
C)blue eyes
D)increased muscle mass from weightlifting

On the Galapagos Islands scientists observed a change to larger bill size following a drought. Which one of the following was the selecting agent for larger bill size?
A)Fewer small soft seeds were available. Birds with larger bills were able to crush larger, harder seeds.
B)Birds with larger bills were better fighters and got more food.
C)Birds with larger bills could find more seeds.
D)Birds with larger bills were bigger.

Which of the following would be a geographic barrier to reproduction between two potentially interbreeding populations?
A)breed at different times of year
B)populations are separated by an uncrossable river
C)each population has a unique mating “dance”
D)one population mates in grasslands, and the other in forests

Which of the following advanced a theory of evolution based on the inheritance of acquired characteristics?
A)Alfred Wallace
B)Charles Darwin
C)Georges-Louis Buffon
D)Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck

Evidence from the study of fossils and the rocks they are found in suggests that oxygen was present in the atmosphere about 2 billion years ago. This means that
A)eukaryotes were present two billion years ago.
B)after 2 billion years ago the amount of ultraviolet light arriving on earth would have been less.
C)aerobic respiration would have been common prior to 2 billion years ago.
D)plants were present 2 billion years ago.

Which of the following pairs of organisms are the most closely related—have the most structural and biochemical similarities?
A)Archaea and Eubacteria
B)Eubacteria and Eucarya
C)plants and animals
D)Archaea and Eucarya

New genes enter a species as a result of
A)sexual reproduction.
B)acquired characteristics.
C)mutations.
D)all of the above

New species are thought to originate
A)from mutations that introduce new genes into the population.
B)sexual reproduction which mixes up the genes and provides new combinations that didn’t exist previously.
C)isolation of two parts of a population so that the two portions do not interbreed.
D)all of the above are true

Within a population of white oak trees, tree A produces many seeds while tree B produces few. However, the survival of the seedlings of the two trees is similar.
Therefore,
A)the genes of tree A will become more common in future generations.
B)evolution is not occurring.
C)tree B will die before tree A.
D)natural selection favors tree B.

Which one of the following statements about evolution is true?
A)Evolution occurred in the past but is not occurring today.
B)Individual organisms evolve but populations do not.
C)Natural selection is the process that causes evolution.
D)The environment of the earth has changed little in the past several million years.

Two groups of organisms are often identified as different species by
A)determining how different their DNA is.
B)determining if the two groups can interbreed.
C)comparing the anatomical structures the two groups possess.
D)all of the above are used.

Wolves and dogs have been determined to be the same species because
A)they look similar.
B)they can interbreed and their offspring can breed as well.
C)their DNA is similar.
D)they have similar behaviors.

Who, along with Charles Darwin, proposed the process of natural selection as the mechanism for evolution?
A)Alfred Wallace
B)Louis Pasteur
C)Georges-Louis Buffon
D)Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck


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Which one of the following statements about our level of understanding about the evolution of a particular group of organisms is true?
A)We typically are able to determine which fossil species gave rise to which modern species.
B)As new discoveries are made we will change our mind about how a particular species evolved.
C)We can often point to examples of current species that were the ancestors of other current species.
D)Species change in predictable ways to reach a particular desired outcome.

Which of the following exhibits a geographic barrier?
A)the same species of bird on island A and island B
B)fish in the water between island A and island B
C)trees on island A and bushes on island B
D)island A and B both have field mice, but the field mice on island A are brown and the field mice on island B are grey

If life originated on Earth as heterotrophs, the first organisms
A)must have carried on photosynthesis.
B)must have carried on aerobic respiration.
C)must have been eukaryotic.
D)must have carried on anaerobic respiration.

According to current theories about the origin of life, which one of the following must have preceded all the others?
A)eukaryotic organisms.
B)oxygen in the atmosphere.
C)photosynthesis.
D)plants.

Which one of the following is an example of natural selection in operation?
A)Male mosquitoes will only mate with females of the same species that produce a particular frequency of sound with their beating wings.
B)Female elk die of old age and are replaced by younger females.
C)Wolves will eat beavers when moose are not available.
D)Cows that produce large quantities of milk produce as many babies as do cows that produce smaller quantities of milk.

You would reasonably expect to find the subspecies of a particular species
A)incapable of interbreeding.
B)occupying slightly different habitats or even distinct habitats.
C)having distinct differences from each other, so as to be easily recognized by the untrained observer.
D)having all of these characteristics.

Natural selection will not occur if
A)all individuals in the species have the same genetic material.
B)there is no sexual reproduction.
C)there are high numbers of mutations in each generation.
D)the population is extremely large (millions of individuals).

The domains Eubacteria and Archaea are similar in that
A)they both have RNA as their genetic material.
B)they both are very closely related to the Eucarya.
C)they are both prokaryotic.
D)they both carry out photosynthesis in extremely hot environments.

If the first organisms on Earth were heterotrophs they would have
A)eaten autotrophs.
B)required organic molecules in their environment.
C)carried on photosynthesis.
D)used RNA as their genetic material.

The origin of eukaryotic cells
A)occurred before prokaryotic cells.
B)probably occurred as a result of different prokaryotic cells combining into one cell.
C)occurred 3.5 billion years ago.
D)resulted in the extinction of prokaryotic cells.

All of the following provide evidence that supports the concept of evolution from a common ancestral type except
A)all organisms use DNA as their genetic material.
B)the fossil record shows prokaryotic cells first, then eukaryotic, then multicellular plants and animals.
C)embryos of related organisms have very similar stage.
D)animals that practice a particular behavior get better at that behavior.

Geomagnetic dating of rocks is possible because
A)of the decay of radioactive elements.
B)reversals of the earth’s magnetic field.
C)the magnetic north pole causes continents to drift northward.
D)silicon dioxide is magnetic.

The fossil record is incomplete because
A)some organisms do not easily form fossils.
B)some fossils have been lost from museums.
C)of changes in climate.
D)All of the above are true

In general the fossil record shows which sequence of organisms?
A)simple marine organisms—marine animals—terrestrial plants—terrestrial animals
B)simple marine organisms—terrestrial plants—marine animals—terrestrial animals
C)marine bacteria—simple marine animals—terrestrial animals—terrestrial plants
D)None of the above is a logical sequence.

If you were studying the fossils of the Permian, you would expect to find all of the following except which kind of fossil?
A)mammals
B)mollusks
C)gymnosperms
D)fish

An examination of the fossil record of life on Earth reveals that
A)extinctions rarely affected more than 10-20% of existing species.
B)terrestrial organisms were less likely to go extinct than marine organisms.
C)it usually took 100s of millions of years for new organisms to appear.
D)None of the above is true.

All of the following statements about the geologic history of Earth are true except which of the following?
A)The positions of the continents have changed.
B)The climate of the earth has changed.
C)The rocks on the earth would look the same today if there had been no living things.
D)Terrestrial animals are the most recent to evolve.

Which one of the following kinds of animals would be the least likely to form a fossil? A (an)
A)insect.
B)clam.
C)fish.
D)jellyfish.

What could you conclude if you have a layer of limestone with fossils of a certain clam in North America and a layer of sandstone with the same clam in Europe?
A)The layer of sandstone and layer of limestone must be about the same age.
B)The layer of sandstone was formed after the layer of limestone.
C)The layer of limestone was formed after the layer of sandstone.
D)None of the above is true.

When we compare the fossils found during different geologic periods we find periods of time
A)in which there were extinctions of many kinds of organisms.
B)when the climate appeared to change significantly.
C)when the continents moved with respect to one another.
D)All of the above are true.

Which one of the following was the most recent kind of organism to appear on the earth?
A)stromatolites
B)fish
C)soft bodied animals
D)photosynthetic organisms

Phylogeny seeks to determine the
A)names of organisms.
B)geologic age of organisms.
C)time when an organism first appeared in the fossil record.
D)evolutionary relationships among organisms.

Which of the following is true for bacteria? Some are
A)eukaryotic.
B)multicellular.
C)photosynthetic.
D)None of the above is true.
In the evolution of living things, which one of the following preceded all the others?
A)viruses
B)Eubacteria
C)Archaea
D)Protista

Prions are
A)not alive.
B)proteins.
C)able to cause disease.
D)All of the above are true.

All of the following statements about the evolution of humans and human-like organisms are true except
A)the oldest fossils are all found in Africa.
B)several species of the genus Homo existed in Europe and Asia.
C)Homo sapiens migrated throughout the world.
D)Homo sapiens made extensive use of tools.

The oldest fossils of the genus Australopithecus are approximately _____ years old.
A)4 million
B)1.6 million
C)20,000
D)100,000

All of the following statements about Neanderthals are true except
A)some scientists have hypothesized they may have interbred with modern humans.
B)recent DNA evidence suggests they were the same species as modern humans.
C)they had a larger brain capacity than modern humans.
D)they disappeared from the fossil record about 25,000 years ago.

A sample containing one-eighth the normal proportion of carbon-14 would be estimated to be _____ years old.
A)5,730
B)91,680
C)22,920
D)11, 460

Organisms with _____ are least likely to be fossilized.
A)soft bodies
B)skeletons
C)shells
D)cell walls

Algae are classified in the kingdom
A)Prokaryotic.
B)Protista.
C)Fungi.
D)Plantae.

Viruses differ from Eubacteria in that viruses
A)have a nucleus and Eubacteria lack a nucleus.
B)lack genetic material.
C)are larger than Eubacteria.
D)can only reproduce inside another cell.

Which one of the following is the most probable immediate ancestor for animals?
A)Archaea
B)Protista
C)Fungi
D)Plantae

Which of the following scientific names is written correctly?
A)Homo sapiens
B)Homo Sapiens
C)homo sapiens
D)homo sapiens

If you were using carbon-14 dating techniques you would need to be determining the age of fossils that
A)contained organic matter.
B)were several million years old.
C)were petrified.
D)None of the above is true.

Which of the following taxonomic groups is the most inclusive?
A)class
B)genus
C)family
D)order

If you saw fossils in layers of rock
A)the oldest fossils would be found in the deepest layers of rock.
B)the oldest fossils would be found in the top layers of rock.
C)the youngest fossils would be found in the deepest layers of rock.
D)It is impossible to tell which fossils are the oldest.

You see three layers of rock; sandstone on the top, with igneous rock below it and limestone below the igneous rock. Which one of the following geologic scenarios is
likely?
A)The area was once covered by an ocean.
B)A lava flow from a volcano occurred.
C)The sandstone was the most recently formed layer.
D)All of the above are likely.

All of the following are fossils except
A)the imprint of a dinosaur foot.
B)a frozen mammoth.
C)the imprint of ripples in sandstone.
D)a piece of wood buried in an ancient mudslide.

The principle of faunal succession
A)states that the same fossils occur during specific geologic periods in all parts of the world.
B)states that the fossils of a particular animal will NOT disappear from the fossil record then reappear at a later time.
C)states that older fossils are more complex than recent fossils.
D)states that the age of a fossil can be successfully determined by careful examination.

Which one of the following sequences is correct?
A)Proteozoic–Phanerozoic–Archean–Precambrian
B)prokaryotic marine organisms–marine animals–terrestrial plants–terrestrial animals
C)Molluscs–fish–bacteria–plants
D)dinosaurs–conifer trees–mammals–flowering plants

Algae are in the kingdom
A)Plantae.
B)Animalia.
C)Mycetae.
D)Protista.

Which of the following is true of the evolution of humans?
A)Humans were found in all parts of the Earth during the same time periods.
B)There are more fossils of older species of human-like organisms in Africa than in other parts of the world.
C)The only fossils of human-like organisms found in Europe are of the species Homo sapiens.
D)The genus Homo is older than the genus Australopithecus.

Viruses are
A)prokaryotic.
B)derived from simple members of the kingdom Protista.
C)not able to reproduce by themselves.
D)able to swim from one host to another.

Single-celled organisms without cell walls are found in the Kingdom
A)Protista.
B)Animalia.
C)Plantae.
D)Mycetae.

Carbon-14 dating techniques can be used to determine the age of a fossil only
A)if the fossil is over a million years old.
B)if it lacks organic material.
C)if you have a currently living organism with which to compare the amount of carbon-14.
D)None of the above is true.

A food chain always begins with
A)mutualistic decomposers.
B)photosynthetic autotrophs.
C)pathetic instructors.
D)heterotrophic consumers.

A biome is
A)found in a community.
B)primarily determined by temperature and rainfall conditions.
C)part of a niche.
D)at its carrying capacity.

Nitrogen is
A)obtained by plants from the atmosphere.
B)released into the atmosphere by consumers.
C)released to the atmosphere by nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
D)required by all organisms to be part of the structure of amino acids.

The carbon cycle involves
A)decomposers that release carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
B)plants that remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during photosynthesis.
C)predators that eat prey.
D)all of the above are true.

A population has reached its carrying capacity when
A)it is in the lag phase.
B)fewer organisms are being born than die.
C)the number of births and deaths are equal.
D)it is in the exponential growth phase.

Which one of the following represents a logical food chain?
A)grass-grasshopper-horse
B)producer-carnivore-herbivore
C)phytoplankton-zooplankton-fish
D)photosynthesis-respiration-decomposition

A niche is
A)a place where an organism lives.
B)the way an organism goes about living.
C)a kind of community.
D)an animal that is able to slip through a narrow opening.

The phosphorus cycle involves
A)bacteria that decompose organic molecules.
B)symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria.
C)plants using ammonia from the soil.
D)All of the above are correct.

An example of community is
A)a desert in which rainfall is less than 5 centimeters per year.
B)all the producers, consumers, and decomposers that interact in an area.
C)bees in a hive.
D)goldfish in a jar.

If the world were to support the largest possible human population, all humans would need to be
A)carnivores.
B)omnivores.
C)herbivores.
D)producers.

The effect of water temperature on a fish in a stream would be classified as a (an)
A)biotic factor.
B)abiotic factor.
C)community.
D)None of the above.

Interacting groups of species are
A)organisms.
B)populations.
C)communities.
D)ecosystems.

Cattle that feed on grass occupy which trophic level?
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth

A blade of grass that contains 100 units of energy is eaten by a rabbit, and the rabbit consumed by a red fox. How many of the original energy units does the fox obtain?
A)100
B)50
C)10
D)1

An ecosystem has grass as a dominant organism but there are a few scattered trees and the rainfall comes at one part of the year. What biome is it?
A)boreal forest
B)savanna
C)prairie
D)desert

Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ant’s niche?
A)the moisture of the soil the ant occupies
B)the ant’s prey
C)the ant’s predators
D)organisms that parasitize the ant

A lion eating a gazelle is an example of
A)an organism at the third trophic level.
B)predator/prey interaction.
C)part of the niche of the gazelle.
D)All of the above are true.

In an ecosystem there are fewer organisms at the third trophic level than at the second because
A)those at the third trophic level are larger in body size.
B)of the law of conservation of energy.
C)some of the energy at the second trophic level was lost to the environment as heat.
D)none of the above is correct.

In the phosphorus cycle
A)plants obtain phosphorus from the soil.
B)animals obtain phosphorus in the food they eat.
C)phosphorus is present in rocks.
D)All of the above are correct.

Neighboring trees utilizing the same soil water is an example of
A)predation.
B)competition.
C)parasitism.
D)commensalism.

Increased amounts of _____ in the atmosphere may lead to an increase in the earth’s temperature through a process termed “global warming.”
A)oxygen gas
B)nitrogen gas
C)hydrogen gas
D)carbon dioxide

Nitrogen is made available to plants by
A)nitrogen fixing bacteria.
B)ammonia.
C)nitrate.
D)All of the above are true.

You would find phytoplankton in
A)the euphotic zone.
B)the ocean.
C)freshwater.
D)All of the above are true.

The portion of the population growth curve that best estimates an environment’s carrying capacity is the
A)lag phase.
B)natality.
C)stable equilibrium phase.
D)exponential growth phase.
The major producers in marine ecosystems are
A)benthic organisms.
B)zooplankton.
C)phytoplankton.
D)the euphotic zone.
The carrying capacity of the environment for the human population
A)has increased because of the development of technology.
B)has been reached.
C)results in an increased mass of the earth.
D)None of the above is correct.

Which of the following could result in increases in human populations even if the total fertility rate is less than replacement level fertility?
A)high death rate
B)small numbers of immigrants
C)elevated infant mortality
D)large proportion of the current population in the pre-reproductive stage

All organisms have organic molecules as a major component of their chemical composition. The carbon atoms in these organic molecules
A)come from the atmosphere.
B)are captured by sunlight.
C)are made by the producers.
D)increase at higher trophic levels.

What biome is characterized by long, severe winters, no trees, and low numbers of animals?
A)tropical rainforest
B)temperate deciduous forest
C)tundra
D)savanna

What percentage of energy is lost in each trophic transfer?
A)10
B)50
C)75
D)90

The oxygen gas in the atmosphere
A)constitutes about 80% of the atmosphere.
B)is the result of photosynthesis.
C)is the result of aerobic respiration.
D)is high during the summer and low during the winter.

A lion eats a gazelle, is pestered by flies, travels long distances to find prey, sleeps during much of the day, and generally hunts within a specific region. This is a partial
description of a lion’s
A)habitat.
B)community.
C)niche.
D)ecosystem.

Which one of the following population is likely to grow rapidly, one
A)that has reached its carrying capacity.
B)with a high birth rate and a high death rate.
C)with a large number of reproductive individuals and a low death rate.
D)in which the number of offspring produced per female is low.

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
A)live in the soil.
B)return nitrogen gas to the atmosphere.
C)capture carbon through the process of photosynthesis.
D)have very small populations.

Farmers remove weeds from fields because weeds
A)are poor producers.
B)compete with the crop plants.
C)do not produce nitrogen for the soil.
D)do not carry on photosynthesis as efficiently as the crop plants.

Which one of the following pairs of terms is logical?
A)capillary –– digestion
B)villi –– absorption
C)alveolus –– vein
D)nephron –– digestion

The sense of taste involves the detection of
A)molecules.
B)ions.
C)pH.
D)All of the above are correct.

Protein differs from carbohydrates and fats in that
A)proteins do not provide energy.
B)proteins cannot be stored.
C)proteins are needed in greater quantities than carbohydrates.
D)None of the above is correct.

Growth is regulated by
A)nerves.
B)the digestive system.
C)hormones.
D)sense organs.

When you exercise, your heart rate and breathing rate increase. This is an example of
A)homeostasis.
B)voluntary control.
C)hormones increasing metabolism.
D)None of the above is correct.

The kidney functions to
A)destroy waste products of metabolism.
B)filter about 5-6 liters of blood each day.
C)produce hormones that stimulate growth.
D)regulate water loss from the body.

Digestion of food in the digestive system is important because
A)the food molecules are not the correct kinds of molecules.
B)large molecules cannot pass through the walls of capillaries.
C)digestion increases the energy content of the food.
D)None of the above is true.

Which of the following is the correct sequence for blood flow?
A)heart — capillaries — veins — arteries
B)heart — veins — capillaries — arteries
C)heart — arteries — capillaries — veins
D)capillaries — heart — arteries — veins

The surface of the skin is
A)the dermis.
B)subcutaneous layer.
C)epidermis.
D)None of the above is correct.

_____ cells are the most sensitive to losses in blood flow from the heart.
A)Muscle
B)Skin
C)Brain
D)Digestive system
Which of the following is the correct sequence for blood flow?
A)right atrium — left atrium — lungs — right ventricle — left ventricle
B)right atrium — right ventricle — lungs — left atrium — left ventricle
C)left atrium — left ventricle — lungs — right atrium — right ventricle
D)left atrium — right atrium — lungs — left ventricle — right ventricle

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the movement of oxygen from the air to muscles?
A)alveoli — capillaries — blood — movement of blood — capillaries — muscles
B)trachea — capillaries — blood — nephrons — movement of blood — capillaries — muscles
C)alveoli — capillaries — heart — muscles — capillaries
D)All of the above are true.

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the digestive system?
A)stomach — small intestine — large intestine — pharynx
B)stomach — pharynx — large intestine — small intestine
C)pharynx — stomach — small intestine — large intestine
D)small intestine — stomach — pharynx — large intestine

Small projections from the walls of the small intestine that aid in nutrient uptake are called
A)alveoli.
B)duodenum.
C)lymph.
D)villi.

The functional unit of a kidney is called a
A)villi.
B)nephron.
C)pancreas.
D)bile.

The function of the small intestine is
A)to absorb nutrients.
B)secrete enzymes.
C)move materials along the length of the intestine.
D)All of the above are true.

Which blood vessels regulate the amount of blood going to an area of the body?
A)capillaries
B)arteries
C)arterioles
D)veins

Which one of the following has the lowest blood pressure?
A)arteries
B)veins
C)capillaries
D)None is correct. They all have the same blood pressure.

The primary function of red blood cells is to
A)carry food.
B)fight disease.
C)carry oxygen.
D)All of the above are correct.
Dietary Reference Intakes and the Food Guide Pyramid are both tools to help people achieve proper nutrition. They differ in that
A)Dietary Reference Intakes state particular quantities of vitamins, minerals and other nutrients—the Food Guide Pyramid does not.
B)Dietary Reference Intakes apply only to adults—the Food Guide Pyramid applies to everyone.
C)Dietary Reference Intakes are designed to help people lose weight—the Food Guide Pyramid is not.
D)Dietary Reference Intakes deal with persons who have special dietary needs—the Food Guide Pyramid is for the general public.

A synapse is
A)a region where an axon of one neuron interacts with the dendrite of another.
B)only able to allow the impulse to flow in one direction.
C)involves the transfer of molecules from axon to dendrite.
D)All of the above are correct.

The amount of energy necessary to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1oC is a
A)kilocalorie.
B)Calorie—nutrition calorie.
C)calorie.
D)All of the above are correct.

Which of the following hormones typically produces a rapid physiological response?
A)testosterone
B)estrogen
C)epinephrine
D)growth-stimulating hormone

All of the following pairs of concepts are logical except which pair?
A)cones: color vision
B)cones: fovea centralis
C)rods: fovea centralis
D)rods: black and white vision

Which of the following muscles rapidly responds to messages from the brain?
A)Chest muscles used in breathing.
B)Muscles in the intestine that move food through the digestive tract.
C)Heart muscle used to pump blood.
D)None of the above is true.

Oxygen
A)enters the blood by diffusion.
B)binds to hemoglobin molecules.
C)passes through capillary walls.
D)All of the above are correct.

Dietary Reference Intakes
A)are measured in calories.
B)are estimates of quantities of nutrients needed daily.
C)assure that everyone will have good nutrition.
D)None of the above is correct.

What do the lungs, kidneys, and small intestine have in common? They
A)are made up of muscle.
B)receive blood from the aorta.
C)have a large surface area.
D)remove materials from the blood.

Capillaries
A)are the smallest blood vessels.
B)carry blood.
C)are the sites where exchange of molecules takes place between the blood and other organs.
D)All of the above are true.

A nerve impulse
A)travels at the speed of light.
B)is an electric current.
C)involves the movement of ions across the nerve cell membrane.
D)All of these answers are true.

Which of the following is typical of an endocrine gland? It
A)secretes into a duct.
B)produces enzymes for digestion.
C)usually secretes its products into the circulatory system.
D)increases the metabolic rate.

Vitamins
A)are responsible for providing energy.
B)are the same as minerals.
C)cannot be manufactured by the human body.
D)are amino acids.

The primary function of the blood is to
A)protect you from disease.
B)carry materials.
C)provide heat.
D)increase metabolism.

The sense of touch
A)is evenly distributed over the surface of the body.
B)consists of very few receptor cells in very specific places, like the tips of the fingers.
C)is relatively unimportant.
D)includes pressure, temperature, and pain receptors.

The primary function of carbohydrates in the diet is to
A)provide building blocks for the cell wall.
B)provide energy.
C)provide amino acids.
D)make you feel full.
Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
A)sperm: gamete
B)diploid: 2n
C)diploid: gamete
D)egg: n

At which stage does crossing-over occur?
A)metaphase I
B)anaphase I
C)prophase I
D)telophase I

In which stage do chromosomes independently assort?
A)metaphase I
B)anaphase I
C)prophase I
D)telophase I

Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
A)spermatid: haploid
B)primary spermatocytes: 2n
C)secondary spermatocytes: n
D)spermatogonia: n

When do a woman’s oocytes finish the process of meiosis?
A)conception
B)birth
C)puberty
D)menopause

How do rates of sexually-transmitted diseases in the United States compare to the rest of the industrialized world?
A)U.S. rates are 4-5 times lower.
B)Rates in the two groups are roughly equal.
C)U.S. rates are 4-5 times higher.
D)U.S. rates are 50-100 times higher.
Which gland is responsible for the production of reproductive hormones?
A)pituitary gland
B)thyroid
C)liver
D)digestive

_________ chromosomes are of the same length, have the same types of genes in the same sequence, and have their centromeres in the same location—one came from
the male parent and the other was contributed by the female parent.
A)Sex
B)Autosomes
C)Homologous
D)Paired

The sex cells produced by male organisms are called
A)gametes.
B)diploid.
C)sperm.
D)All the above are true.

How are sperm and egg cells formed so that they get only half the chromosomes of the diploid cell?
A)Meiosis
B)Mitosis
C)Asexual reproduction
D)Fertilization
Which is incorrect when describing meiosis?
A)Single adult cell → Single gamete (sperm or egg)
B)Contains 2 sets of chromosomes → Contains 1 set of chromosomes
C)2n → n
D)Single gamete → contains 2 sets of chromosomes

In a diploid nucleus, the chromosomes occur as homologous chromosomes,
A)a pair of chromosomes in a diploid cell that contain similar genes throughout their length.
B)two chromosomes derived from the same parent.
C)chromosomes that have different phenotypes.
D)three chromosomes that contain identical alleles.

In flowering plants, the_____ produces eggs or ova, and the_____ produces pollen, which contains sperm.
A)petal, flower
B)flower, anther
C)pod, leafs
D)pistil, anther

During this stage, homologous chromosomes separate and their number is reduced from diploid to haploid.
A)Anaphase I
B)Metaphase II
C)Telophase II
D)Prophase I

This exchange results in a chromosome with a new combination of genes, combinations of traits that were probably never found in the family before.
A)mutation
B)crossing-over
C)segregation
D)independent assortment

A picture of an individual’s chromosomal makeup is referred to as that person’s
A)karyotype.
B)genotype.
C)genome.
D)phenotype.

The total number of chromosomes becomes reduced during
A)Meiosis I.
B)Meiosis II.
C)Mitosis.
D)Synapse.

While homologous chromosomes are paired they can exchange equivalent sections of DNA. This process is called
A)cleavage formation.
B)independent assortment.
C)synapse.
D)crossing-over.

This chromosome in males appears to be primarily concerned with determining male sexual differentiation and has few other genes on it.
A)X
B)Y
C)Z
D)Autosome

This process occurs during meiosis when chromosomes do not separate properly and the wrong number of chromosomes ends up in a gamete.
A)Meiosis II
B)Anaphase
C)Segregation
D)Nondisjunction

The syndrome in which a person has an extra number 21 chromosome is known as
A)Down.
B)Turner.
C)Klinefelter.
D)Thomas.

This chemical acts as a master switch that triggers the events that converts the embryo into a male.
A)SRY
B)TDF
C)ATP
D)DNA

These people are designated as XO.
A)Down
B)Klinefelter
C)Turner
D)Thomas

This genetic condition, XXY, is termed __________ syndrome, and probably the most common chromosomal variation found in humans.
A)Klinefelter’s
B)Turner’s
C)Down
D)Peters’

The presence of this hormone results in the differentiation of male sexual anatomy and the absence of this same hormone results in the differentiation into female sexual
anatomy.
A)Testosterone
B)Progesterone
C)Prolactin
D)Gonadotropin

This hormone stimulates the development of follicles.
A)Gonadotropin
B)Oxytocin
C)Insulin
D)FSH

Which is not an accessory gland in males?
A)seminal vesicle
B)bulbourethral gland
C)prostate
D)testes

Men with sperm counts under __________ are often infertile.
A)50 million/ml
B)150 million/ml
C)250 million/ml
D)none of these is correct

During her lifetime, a female releases about __________ secondary oocytes.
A)30 to 50
B)300 to 500
C)300,000 to 400,000
D)Millions

These hormones can regulate the release of oocytes from the ovary.
A)Fertility drugs
B)Contraceptive foams
C)Tubal ligation
D)Vasectomy

This process involves surgically removing eggs from a woman’s ovaries, combining them with sperm in the laboratory, and returning them to the woman’s body or
donating them to another woman.
A)Tubal ligation
B)Menstruation
C)Assisted Reproductive Technology
D)In vivo fertilization

Sex cells in humans normally carry
A)two autosomes.
B)one sex chromosome.
C)two autosomes, an X and a Y.
D)two sex chromosomes, an X and a Y.

The normal flow through sex cell formation in humans is
A)meiosis I then meiosis II.
B)prophase, anaphase, metaphase and telophase.
C)mitosis I followed by mitosis II.
D)prophase I, prophase II, metaphase I, metaphase II.

The sex chromosomes normally segregate during
A)mitosis II.
B)anaphase I.
C)anaphase II.
D)prophase I.

Testes are composed of many small sperm-producing tubes?
A)epididymis
B)fallopian tubes
C)seminiferous tubules
D)vas deferens

Which is the proper sequence?
A)Ovary, uterus, oviduct, vagina.
B)Ovary, oviduct, uterus, vagina.
C)Fallopian tube, ovary, uterus, vagina.
D)vagina, uterus, ovary, oviduct.

Which is true of the testes?
A)They are the source of ova.
B)Hormones are not produced by these tissues.
C)Sperm and hormones are secreted by the testes.
D)They normally stop producing sperm at the age of 60.

The lining of the uterus which is lost during the ‘period’ is technically known as the
A)placenta.
B)endometrium.
C)prostate.
D)amnion.


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The ovaries
A)are responsible for sperm production.
B)are the site of meiosis.
C)are the site of all endocrine system activity.
D)are only composed on haploid cells.

The contraceptive method which relies on abstaining from sexual intercourse during ovulation is
A)IUD.
B)ECP.
C)vasectomy.
D)rhythm method.

If a person has three of one kind of chromosome instead of the normal two,
A)the condition is called a trisomy.
B)down syndrome is an example.
C)is a chromosomal abnormality.
D)All of the above are true.

The first person to systematically study genetics was
A)Darwin.
B)Mendel.
C)Lyell.
D)Lamarck.

A gene’s location on a chromosome is its
A)gamete.
B)meiosis.
C)locus.
D)allele.

Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
A)diploid: gamete
B)haploid: n
C)meiosis: sex cells
D)chromosome: locus

With regard to the genetically control of ear lobe shape, an individual with the genotype ee
A)is heterozygous.
B)has two attached earlobes.
C)has free earlobes.
D)is homozygous dominant.

The allele for attached earlobes is ______ to the allele for free earlobes.
A)dominant
B)codominant
C)recessive
D)pleiotropic

Sickle-cell anemia is an example of a _____ trait.
A)recessive
B)dominant
C)codominant
D)sex linked

Males show higher frequencies of _____ traits than females.
A)recessive X-linked
B)codominant
C)dominant
D)recessive

“Pure line” pea plants are always _____ for a given trait.
A)recessive
B)dominant
C)heterozygous
D)homozygous

This gene controls the differentiation of the embryonic gonad to a male testis.
A)ABC gene
B)GM gene
C)achondroplasia gene
D)SRY gene

Mendel’s___________ states that when gametes are formed by a diploid organism, the alleles that control a trait separate from one another into different gametes,
retaining their individuality.
A)law of dominance
B)law of segregation
C)law of independent assortment
D)law of genetic abnormality

This tool is a box figure that allows you to determine the probability of genotypes and phenotypes of the progeny of a particular cross.
A)Punnett square
B)PCR
C)controlled cross
D)inbreeding

A trait determined by alleles at multiple loci is an example of
A)codominance.
B)dominance.
C)multiple alleles.
D)polygenic inheritance.
Which of the following is not a polygenic trait in humans?
A)height
B)skin color
C)blood type
D)eye color

If one gene affects multiple phenotypes, it is said to be
A)recessive.
B)pleiotropic.
C)dominant.
D)codominant.

Which of the following bases is not found in DNA?
A)thymine
B)cytosine
C)guanine
D)uracil

Which of the following base pairings is incorrect?
A)G-C
B)A-T
C)G-U
D)U-A

There are three different forms of RNA. Which is not one of these?
A)mitochondrial
B)messenger
C)transfer
D)ribosomal

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)DNA replication: DNA polymerase
B)translation: tRNA
C)translation: rRNA
D)DNA replication: amino acids

When a gene is transcribed into RNA, the duplex double-stranded DNA is “unzipped,” and an enzyme known as ________ attaches to the DNA at the promoter region.
A)DNA polymerase
B)RNA polymerase
C)helicase
D)unzipperase

“Mature” mRNA does not contain
A)exons.
B)introns.
C)uracil.
D)guanine.
How many common amino acids are used in protein synthesis?
A)14
B)20
C)30
D)64

The expression of a gene is called
A)probability.
B)phenotype.
C)genotype.
D)pleiotropy.

A homozygous recessive genotype is
A)aa.
B)Aa.
C)AA.
D)AaBb.
In humans, normal skin dominates albino skin; a cross between two albino people results in
A)two normal: two albino.
B)all normal.
C)all albino.
D)three albino: one normal.

Different forms of the same gene are referred to as
A)loci.
B)alleles.
C)homozygotes.
D)hybrids.

In the genotype Aabb
A)A is a dominant allele.
B)a and b are alleles of each other.
C)A and b are at the same locus.
D)A and a are dominant genes.

A gene that can be masked by another gene is called
A)pleiotropy.
B)dominant.
C)incompletely dominant.
D)recessive.

In the field of genetic engineering, the acronym GM stands for
A)General Motors.
B)Genetically modified.
C)Genetic method.
D)Genetic material.
Which of the following represents the sex chromosomes of a typical human female?
A)XY
B)XXX
C)XO
D)XX

The Y chromosome is carried in the
A)egg.
B)egg or sperm.
C)polar body.
D)sperm.

Using this bioengineering technique it is possible to show the nucleotide sequence differences among individuals since no two people have the same nucleotide sequences.
A)Genetic finger printing.
B)PCR.
C)GM.
D)Genetic recombination.

Approximately what percentage of the earth’s water is freshwater?
A)3%
B)20%
C)75%
D)97%
Approximately what percentage of the earth’s water is available freshwater?
A)1%
B)3%
C)75%
D)98%

The majority of the stream flow in a permanent stream comes from
A)recent rainfall.
B)recent snow melt.
C)groundwater.
D)none of the above

On average, what percentage of rainfall becomes runoff?
A)1%
B)30%
C)50%
D)70%

Rainfall falling on Phoenix, Arizona will eventually empty into which ocean?
A)Atlantic
B)Gulf of Mexico
C)Indian
D)Pacific

Which of the following is not categorized as surface water?
A)stream
B)aquifer
C)reservoir
D)lake

Groundwater is found in greatest quantities in soils with _____ porosity and _____ permeability.
A)high/high
B)high/low
C)low/high
D)low/low

A groundwater well should be dug to a depth
A)above the water table.
B)at the top of the water table.
C)above the zone of saturation.
D)below the water table.

Groundwater is most often treated to remove
A)bacteria.
B)toxic pollutants.
C)dissolved minerals.
D)sediments.

Why is groundwater used less frequently than surface water?
A)Groundwater use requires substantial inputs of energy to pump it to the surface.
B)Groundwater is naturally filtered in the soil.
C)Groundwater requires less pre-treatment than surface waters.
D)none of the above

Which stage of wastewater treatment removes suspended particles by sedimentation?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)post-secondary

Secondary treatment removes organic wastes from wastewater through the biological action of
A)parasites
B)fish
C)algae
D)bacteria

The geologically active “ring of fire” circles which ocean?
A)Atlantic
B)Indian
C)Pacific
D)Gulf of Mexico

Land comprises _____ percent of the earth’s total surface are
A)10
B)30
C)50
D)70

Evaporation and ice formation lead to a(n) ______ in seawater salinity.
A)increase
B)decrease
C)no change

The most common type of pollution in estuaries in the United States is
A)bacterial pathogens.
B)oil spills.
C)toxic metals.
D)excessive nutrients.

Plant life in sunlit ocean waters tends to decrease water concentrations of
A)carbon dioxide.
B)oxygen.
C)nitrogen.

Which of the following statements about waves is false?
A)No water particle movement occurs below a depth = 1/2λ.
B)Waves transport water molecules across the open ocean.
C)Waves become breakers near the shore when ocean depth is 1 1/3 times wave height.
D)Breakers form due to friction between the circular motion of water particles and the ocean bottom.
Which of the following is not a cause of ocean currents?
A)winds that blow persistently in the same direction
B)density differences in seawater
C)underwater seismic activity

Which of the following generally increases the density of water?
A)lower salinity
B)lower temperature
C)lower sediment levels

Which of the following components of the ocean bottom is located the greatest distance from the shore?
A)continental slope
B)continental shelf
C)ocean basin

Seafloor is created at _____ and destroyed at _____.
A)mid-ocean ridges, hydrothermal vents
B)hydrothermal vents, subduction zones
C)subduction zones, mid-ocean ridges
D)mid-ocean ridges, subduction zones

The primary human-induced cause for the decline in submerged aquatic vegetation in the Chesapeake Bay is the input of
A)blue crabs.
B)toxic metals.
C)nutrients.
D)algae.

The Mediterranean is a shallow sea of the
A)Atlantic Ocean.
B)Pacific Ocean.
C)Indian Ocean.
D)Arctic Ocean.

A tsunami is a large wave created by
A)sea-floor spreading.
B)underwater earthquake.
C)subduction of sea floor.
D)all of the above


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